Consider a random vector $U = (U_1,U_2)$ where $U_1$ and $U_2$ are independent and identically distributed. Let $X =(X_1,X_2)$ with $X_1$ and $X_2$ being dependent random variables.
Suppose that $X = (X_1,X_2)$ and $U = (U_1,U_2)$ are independent. Define $Z_1 = X_1 U_1$ and $Z_2 = X_2 U_2$. The question at hand is to determine whether the variables $Z_1$ and $Z_2$ are independent.
Attempt: To investigate the independence of $Z_1$ and $Z_2$, we need to analyze their joint distribution. Let $f_{Z_1,Z_2}(z_1,z_2)$ denote the joint distribution of $Z_1$ and $Z_2$. We can express this joint distribution as:
$$f_{Z_1,Z_2}(z_1,z_2) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f_{X_1,X_2}(z_1/u_1,z_2/u_2) \, f_{U_1,U_2}(u_1,u_2) \, du_1 \, du_2.$$
If this expression does not factorize into the product of the marginal distributions of $Z_1$ and $Z_2$, then $Z_1$ and $Z_2$ are not independent.
Is there a counterexample or is this true?