Suppose I observe an outcome $Y$ (e.g., survival binary) and I have variables $X_1, X_2, \dots, X_m$ that all refer to the same entity (e.g., health condition assessed by rater $1, 2, \dots, m$). So for each $X_i$ I have the same $Y$, but $X_1, X_2, \dots, X_m$ may be different. I thought about the following model: $$y_{ij} = \beta_0 + \beta_1 x_{ij} + u_{ij}$$ for $i = 1,2,\dots,n$ and $j = 1,2,\dots,m$. Note that $y_{ij} =y_i$ for all $j = 1,2,\dots,m$. That is, the dependent variable $y_i$ for individual $i$ is always the same. The variance-covariance matrix of the OLSE $\hat{\boldsymbol\beta} = (\hat\beta_0,\hat\beta_1)$ is given by $$\operatorname{Var}[\hat{\boldsymbol\beta}|\boldsymbol X] = (\boldsymbol X^\top\boldsymbol X)^{-1}(\boldsymbol X^\top\boldsymbol\Sigma\boldsymbol X)(\boldsymbol X^\top\boldsymbol X)^{-1},$$ where $$\boldsymbol X = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & x_{11} \\\ 1 & x_{12} \\ \vdots & \vdots \\\ 1 & x_{1m} \\\ 1 & x_{21} \\\ 1 & x_{22} \\\ \vdots & \vdots \\ 1 & x_{nm}\end{pmatrix}\quad\text{and}\quad\boldsymbol\Sigma = \operatorname{Var}\left[\begin{pmatrix} u_{11} \\ u_{12} \\ \vdots \\ u_{1m} \\ u_{21} \\ u_{22} \\ \vdots \\ u_{nm} \end{pmatrix}\middle|\boldsymbol X\right].$$ Now my questions concerns $\boldsymbol\Sigma$:
- Is $\boldsymbol\Sigma$ a diagonal matrix, i.e., $u_{ij}$ and $u_{kl}$ are uncorrelated for $i\neq k$ and $j\neq l$?
- Is $\boldsymbol\Sigma$ a block-digonal matrix, i.e., $u_{ij}$ and $u_{kl}$ are correlated for $i\neq k$ but there might be non-zero correlations for $i = k$.
I find 1. not very realistic because all raters rate the same individual, so there should be some dependency (driven by the, say, actual health condition of the individual. Of course, this implicitly assumes the raters share a common perspective, but I think this is a reasonable assumption). On the other hand, I find that 2. can't be true as $\operatorname{Var}[y_{ij}] = \operatorname{Var}[u_{ij}]$ in the linear model. Hence we would consider the covariance of $y_{ij}$ and $y_{il}$. But since for any $i = 1,2,\dots,n$, the outcome $y_{ij}$ is the same for all $j = 1,2,\dots,m$, we would have the covariance of a random variable with itself.
What would you think is a better model? I know that this will likely depend on the specific use-case at hand, but I would like to get a general understanding. The reason I am asking this question is whether there is a need to consider a method that corrects the standard errors (e.g., mixed-model, robust standard errors, clustered standard errors, ...).