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Let $M_{ij}$ be a real random matrix, constrained to be symmetric $M_{ij}=M_{ji}$, and with zero diagonal, $M_{ii}=0$.

Suppose we know that, for any real vector $v_i$, the following holds:

$$\operatorname{var}\left( \sum_{ij}M_{ij}v_{i}v_{j} \right) = \frac{1}{n} \left[ \left( \sum_{i}v_{i}^{2} \right)^{2} - \sum_{i}v_{i}^{4} \right]$$

where $n$ is the dimensionality, so $i,j\in\{1,\dots,n\}$.

What can we conclude about the variances and covariances of the entries $M_{ij}$?

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  • $\begingroup$ Related: stats.stackexchange.com/q/658101/5536 $\endgroup$
    – a06e
    Commented Dec 2 at 9:12
  • $\begingroup$ Have you tried plugging in very simple vectors $\mathbf v_i$ to see what the formula says? $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Dec 2 at 15:28
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    $\begingroup$ How about you try to use the simple method pointed out to you in the answer to your previous question and edit your question to report the results of your investigation? Maybe you will be able to reach a conclusion that could be written up as a self-answer to your question. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 2 at 20:10
  • $\begingroup$ @DilipSarwate I came up with an answer. If you're interested I'd appreciate a second set of eyes in case I missed something ! $\endgroup$
    – a06e
    Commented Dec 3 at 11:42

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We start from the equality

$$\operatorname{var}\left( \sum_{ij}M_{ij}v_{i}v_{j} \right) = \frac{1}{n} \left[ \left( \sum_{i}v_{i}^{2} \right)^{2} - \sum_{i}v_{i}^{4} \right]$$

This is an equality of two polynomials in the variables $v_i$. Since the $v_i$ are free, the coefficients of different mixed powers must match.

Let's start with the right-hand side. expanding the variance,

$$\operatorname{var}\left( \sum_{ij}M_{ij}v_{i}v_{j} \right) = \sum_{ijkl} \operatorname{cov}(M_{ij},M_{kl}) v_i v_j v_k v_l$$

For the right-hand side, we have,

$$\left( \sum_{i}v_{i}^{2} \right)^{2} - \sum_{i}v_{i}^{4} = \sum_{ij}v_i^2 v_j^2 - \sum_{i}v_{i}^{4} = \sum_{i \neq j} v_i^2 v_j^2$$

The coefficient of $v_i^2 v_j^2$ on the right is $\frac{2}{n}$ if $i<j$, while terms do not appear (i.e., their coefficient is zero).

From this we conclude that $\operatorname{cov}(M_{ij},M_{kl})=0$ unless the $i,j,k,l$ consists of two repeated distinct indices. The only possibilities are $\operatorname{cov}(M_{ij},M_{ij})=\operatorname{var}(M_{ij})$, and $\operatorname{cov}(M_{ii},M_{jj})=0$ (because $M$ has zero diagonal). Therefore, assuming $i\le j$ and $k\le l$, $$\operatorname{cov}(M_{ij},M_{kl})=\delta_{ik}\delta_{jl}\operatorname{var}(M_{ij})$$

Distinct entries of the matrix $M_{ij}$ must be uncorrelated.

The variances $\operatorname{var}(M_{ij})$ can be computed easily. For instance let $v_i=\delta_{i,1}+\delta_{i,2}$. Then,

$$\operatorname{var}\left( 2M_{12} \right) = \frac{1}{n} \left[ 2^{2} - 2 \right] = \frac{2}{n}$$

Thus $\operatorname{var}\left( M_{12} \right)=\frac{1}{2n}$.

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