I have been reading about the frequentist vs bayesian issue (this article has helped a lot, specially with the example; also this one), and I haven't come to terms with it. At the moment it seems like there are the frequentist and bayesian interpretation of probability; and, separately, the frequentist and bayesian approach to problems. The former is about the belief vs frequency issue (illustrated in the second article). The later is illustrated in the first article. Both put together seem to me like this:
- The frequentist interpretation of the frequentist approach ensures to be right a% of the time for large number of trials assuming only the likelihood distribution, no matter which parameter we get, as long we as assume that we'll get a good range of data.
- The frequentist interpretation of the bayesian approach ensures to be right a% of the time for large number of trials assuming the likelihood distribution and the prior, no matter which data we get, as long as we assume that we'll get a good range of parameters.
- The bayesian interpretation of the frequentist approach says that we are right with a probability of a% assuming only the likelihood distribution, no matter which parameter we get, as long as we assume fairness in the randomness of the data.
- The bayesian interpretation of the bayesian approach says that we are right with a probability of a% assuming the likelihood distribution and the prior, no matter which data we get, as long as we assume fairness in the randomness of the parameters.
This is the only consistent view that I have been able to form from what I've read. However, I I still think I maybe missing something (as I actually haven't found this view like this anywhere else, it's my own conclusion), so taking the null hypothesis that I'm wrong, where's my mistake?