Can you please check my work in the problem below?
Consider a location model:
$$X_i =\theta +e_i, \quad i=1,\ldots,n $$
where $e_1, e_2, \ldots e_n $ are iid with pdf $f(z)$. Define $\mathbf{\mu}=\theta \mathbf{1}$ where $\mathbf{1}$ is a vector with all its components equal to $1$. Let $V$ be the subspace of vectors of the form $\mathbf{\mu}$. Then
$$\mathbf{X}=\mathbf{\mu}+\mathbf{e} \quad \mathbf{\mu} \in V $$
It makes sense therefore to estimate $\mathbf{\mu}$ by a vector in $V$ which is "closest" to $\mathbf{X} $, i.e.
$$\mathbf{\hat{\mu}}=\mathrm{Argmin} || \mathbf{X}-\mathbf{v} ||,\quad \mathbf{v} \in V $$
If the error PDF is the standard Laplace, show that the minimization of the above is equivalent to maximizing the likelihood when the norm is the $l1$ norm given by
$$||v||_1=\sum_{i=1}^n | v_i | $$
Of all the components of the location model, the error is the random one so it would make sense to make the one-to-one transformation $e_i=x_i-\theta$ in the PDF of $e_i$. The likelihood then becomes:
$$L \left( \theta \right) =\frac{1}{2^n} exp \{ -\sum |x_i -\theta | \} $$
and the log likelihood
$$ l \left( \theta \right) =-n \log2 -\sum_{i=1}^n |x_i -\theta | $$
Now it seems very clear that the maximization of $ -\sum_{i=1}^n |x_i -\theta |$ is equivalent to the minimization of $\sum_{i=1}^n |X_i-\theta| $ as desired. Does that suffice or am I required to do more?
Thanks in advance.