Expectation of reciprocal of a variable I am confused in applying expectation in denominator. 
$E(1/X)=\,?$
can it be $1/E(X)\,$?
 A: An alternative approach to calculating $E(1/X)​$ knowing X is a positive random variable is through its moment generating function $E[e^{-\lambda X}]​$. 
Since by elementary calculas
$$
\int_0^\infty e^{-\lambda x} d\lambda =\frac{1}{x}
$$
we have, by Fubini's theorem
$$
\int_0^\infty E[e^{-\lambda X}] d\lambda =E[\frac{1}{X}].
$$
A: 
can it be 1/E(X)?

No, in general it can't; Jensen's inequality tells us that if $X$ is a random variable and $\varphi$ is a convex function, then $\varphi(\text{E}[X]) \leq \text{E}\left[\varphi(X)\right]$. If $X$ is strictly positive, then $1/X$ is convex, so $\text{E}[1/X]\geq 1/\text{E}[X]$, and for a strictly convex function, equality only occurs if $X$ has zero variance ... so in cases we tend to be interested in, the two are generally unequal.
Assuming we're dealing with a positive variable, if it's clear to you that $X$ and $1/X$ will be inversely related ($\text{Cov}(X,1/X)\leq 0$) then this would imply $E(X \cdot 1/X) - E(X) E(1/X) \leq 0$ which implies $E(X) E(1/X) \geq 1$, so $E(1/X) \geq 1/E(X)$.

I am confused in applying expectation in denominator.

Use the law of the unconscious statistician
$$\text{E}[g(X)] = \int_{-\infty}^\infty g(x) f_X(x) dx$$ 
(in the continuous case)
so when $g(X) = \frac{1}{X}$, $\text{E}[\frac{1}{X}]=\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{f(x)}{x} dx$
In some cases the expectation can be evaluated by inspection (e.g. with gamma random variables), or by deriving the distribution of the inverse, or by other means.
A: As Glen_b says that's probably wrong, because the reciprocal is a non-linear function. If you want an approximation to $E(1/X)$ maybe you can use a Taylor expansion around $E(X)$:
$$
E \bigg( \frac{1}{X} \bigg) \approx E\bigg( \frac{1}{E(X)} - \frac{1}{E(X)^2}(X-E(X)) + \frac{1}{E(X)^3}(X - E(X))^2   \bigg) = \\
= \frac{1}{E(X)} + \frac{1}{E(X)^3}Var(X)
$$
so you just need mean and variance of X, and if the distribution of $X$ is symmetric this approximation can be very accurate.
EDIT: the maybe above is quite critical, see the comment from BioXX below. 
A: Others have already explained that the answer to the question is NO, except trivial cases.  Below we give an approach to finding $\DeclareMathOperator{\E}{\mathbb{E}} \E \frac1{X}$ when $X>0$ with probability one, and the moment generating function $M_X(t) = \E e^{tX}$ do exist.  An application of this method (and a generalization) is given in Expected value of $1/x$ when $x$ follows a Beta distribution, we will here also give a simpler example. 
First, note that $\int_0^\infty e^{-t x}\; dt = \frac1{x}$ (simple calculus exercise). Then, write
$$
   \E \left(\frac1{X}\right) = \int_0^\infty x^{-1} f(x)\; dx =
   \int_0^\infty \left( \int_0^\infty e^{-tx}\; dt \right) f(x)\; dx =\\
\int_0^\infty \left( \int_0^\infty e^{-tx} f(x) \; dx \right) \; dt = 
\int_0^\infty M_X(-t) \; dt
$$
A simple application:  Let $X$ have the exponential distribution with rate 1, that is, with density $e^{-x}, x>0$ and moment generating function $M_X(t)=\frac1{1-t}, t<1$. Then $\int_0^\infty M_X(-t)\; dt = \int_0^\infty \frac1{1+t} \; dt= \ln(1+t) \bigg\rvert_0^\infty = \infty$, so definitely do not converge, and is very different from $\frac1{\E X}=\frac11=1$.
A: To first give an intuition, what about using the discrete case in finite sample to illustrate that $\text{E}(1/X)\neq 1/\text{E}(X)$ (putting aside cases such as $\text{E}(X)=0$)?
In finite sample, using the term average for expectation is not that abusive, thus if one has on the one hand
$\text{E}(X) = \frac{1}{N}\sum_{i=1}^N X_i$
and one has on the other hand
$\text{E}(1/X) = \frac{1}{N}\sum_{i=1}^N 1/X_i$
it becomes obvious that, with $N>1$,
$\text{E}(1/X) = \frac{1}{N}\sum_{i=1}^N 1/X_i \neq \frac{N}{\sum_{i=1}^N X_i} = 1/\text{E}(X)$
Which leads to say that, basically, $\text{E}(1/X)\neq 1/\text{E}(X)$ since the inverse of the (discrete) sum is not the (discrete) sum of inverses.
Analogously in the asymptotic $0$-centered continuous case, one has
$\text{E}(1/X)=\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{f(x)}{x} dx \neq 1/\int_{-\infty}^\infty xf(x) dx = 1/\text{E}(X)$.
