In the context of the classical linear regression model (with all standard assumptions), we know that when the error term is normally distributed, least squares is minimum variance among all linear unbiased estimators and we know the exact statistical distribution of the t statistics.
However, if the residual histogram suggests that the error term is something other than normal, then the t statistics will not have the claimed t distribution (nor will the F statistic be F distributed). Surely, it does not make sense to assume normality if the residuals suggest otherwise. Instead, if we want to know the theoretical distribution of the t statistic, why not assume that the errors are distributed in population based on what we observe from the residual histogram?