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Supposing $\ X $ ~ $\chi_1^2 $ and $\ Y $ ~ $\chi_{10}^2$ and $\ X $ and $\ Y$ are independent. How would I calculate the probability that $\ X $ is bigger than $\ Y $?

I know that the ratio of $\ X/1$ and $\ Y/10$ would be $\ F$ distributed, but I don't know if that's helpful or not.

Can anyone help?

Thanks

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    $\begingroup$ Because $X$ and $Y$ are positive a.s., the statement $X\gt Y$ is algebraically equivalent to $(X/1)/(Y/10)\gt 10.$ Does that help? $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Feb 16, 2014 at 18:01
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for helping, whuber. Could you explain where the >10 comes in? $\endgroup$
    – user123965
    Commented Feb 16, 2014 at 18:43
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    $\begingroup$ The left hand side is the ratio you mention. The right hand side comes from the multiplicative factor of $10$ you supplied. The inequality is equivalent to $X/Y\gt 1$ which in turn is equivalent to $X \gt Y$ when $Y \gt 0.$ $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Feb 16, 2014 at 18:45
  • $\begingroup$ Tom: in case it's not already obvious, think about how to apply what whuber said to your idea about the F ratio. $\endgroup$
    – Glen_b
    Commented Feb 17, 2014 at 0:03
  • $\begingroup$ I think I have it now. So the probability would be equal to $\ P(F>10) = 1- P(F<=10) = 0.9899 $? $\endgroup$
    – user123965
    Commented Feb 17, 2014 at 6:12

1 Answer 1

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To close this one: For $Y>0$, $$P(X > Y) = P\left(\frac XY > 1\right) = P\left(\frac {X/1}{Y/10}\cdot \frac 1{10} > 1\right)$$

$$= P(F > 10) = 1- P(F\leq 10) = 0.9899$$

since $F$ follows an $F$-distribution with $(1,10)$ degrees of freedom.

These are continuous r.v's, so "ignoring" the single-point case $Y=0$ causes no harm.

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