I'm trying to see why this is the case. I have taken the LHS and added $X\hat{\beta}$ and subtracted $X\hat{\beta}$.

From this I can get both terms on the right but I end up with a cross product term

$2(y-X\hat{\beta})^T(X\hat{\beta} - X\beta)$

that I can't prove equals to zero. I think there is some trick I'm missing, anybody remember it?

  • $\begingroup$ Apologies, I was typing on my phone so couldn't Latex things correctly. $\endgroup$
    – alan4cult
    Apr 5, 2014 at 17:11

1 Answer 1


$$2(\mathbf y-\mathbf X\hat{\beta})^T(\mathbf X\hat{\beta} - \mathbf X\beta)= 2(\mathbf y-\mathbf {\hat y})^T(\mathbf X\hat{\beta} - \mathbf X\beta)$$

$$=2\mathbf {\hat \varepsilon}^T \mathbf X(\hat{\beta} - \beta) = 2(\mathbf X^T \mathbf {\hat \varepsilon})^T (\hat{\beta} - \beta)=2\cdot \mathbf 0\cdot(\hat{\beta} - \beta) =0 $$

since the residuals are by construction orthogonal to the regressor matrix.


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