I came across an interesting little quirk when I was coding up a hypothesis test in Python.
I was wondering why very time I tested some values for normalcy using the Anderson–Darling test, I was getting a positive.
Turns out my loop was just testing over one single value (oops)! But then I got to thinking, I wonder if this is generally the case -- can a single real-valued number be shown to belong to every distribution that has real-valued numbers as it's support? Is there a trivial result that states this somewhere in the statistical literature?