3
$\begingroup$

What "fat-tailed distributions" $p(x)$, symmetric about zero, have the property $$\newcommand{\e}{\mathbb{E}}\newcommand{\rd}{\mathrm{d}} \e e^X = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^x p(x) \rd x < \infty \> ? $$

Context

I'm attempting to price financial options for $X$ without using the Black–Scholes formula. It is usually easier to work with the log-price $Y = \log(X)$ and often it is assumed that $Y$ is normally distributed.

Empirical observations (eg, the "volatility smile") suggest that $Y$ isn't normal; the normal distribution decreases too rapidly away from 0. Thus, we need a fat-tailed distribution.

The value of a call option increases exponentially as $Y$ increases linearly. Therefore, $p(x)$ must decline fast enough that $\e e^X < \infty$. In other words, the distribution must decline slower than the normal distribution, but still fast enough that $\e e^X$ converges.

I tried the Cauchy and Student's $t$ distributions, but $\e e^X$ diverges for both, regardless of parameters.

I also realize I can create arbitrary distributions meeting my conditions (though I'm not exactly sure how), but I'm looking for a well-known (parametrized family of) distribution.

Even more details (for the masochist): https://github.com/barrycarter/bcapps/blob/master/bc-imp-vol.m

$\endgroup$
8
  • $\begingroup$ It is better to use $\LaTeX$ instead of Mathematica syntax for maths, the first is interpreted here. $\endgroup$
    – user88
    Commented Apr 24, 2011 at 18:16
  • $\begingroup$ Setting $p(x) = 0$ for $x > M$ is definitely not fat-tailed by any standard definition. $\endgroup$
    – cardinal
    Commented Apr 24, 2011 at 18:52
  • $\begingroup$ @barrycarter, I have tried to fully rewrite and reformat your question without altering the content. To do so, I've introduced the variable $Y$. But, that more clearly brings out a bit of ambiguity in the original question regarding whether you are interested in the stated property for $X$ itself or for $Y$. I actually believe it is for $Y$, but I've strived hard to make the question a bit more reader-friendly without altering the content. You're welcome to roll back the revision. In any event, I strongly recommend you edit it to clarify whether the main object of interest is $X$ or $Y$. $\endgroup$
    – cardinal
    Commented Apr 24, 2011 at 23:36
  • $\begingroup$ @cardinal - setting $p(x)=0$ for $x>M$ is not unrealistic for large enough $M$. I would say this is the only truly realistic way to model anything, because infinity doesn't exist in the real world. Its just hard to say exactly what that $M$ is, and by taking the limit as $M\to\infty$ is a useful approximation which opens up analytic methods. But one cannot claim for it to be "exact" - even if no mathematical approximations have been made. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 25, 2011 at 0:30
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @probabilityislogic, your point is well taken. However, my intent was to address terminology in order to (hopefully) reduce confusion and (possible) misinterpretation. A density function supported on a compact set is pretty much the antithesis of "fat-tailed". $\endgroup$
    – cardinal
    Commented Apr 25, 2011 at 0:34

2 Answers 2

1
$\begingroup$

The variance gamma process is a useful way to go. It is an extension of the standard brownian motion process, $Z(t)$

$$Y(t;\mu,\sigma,\nu)=\mu \Gamma(t;1,\nu) + \sigma Z(\Gamma[t;1,\nu])$$

Where $\Gamma(t;1,\nu)$ is a gamma process, with independent gamma distributed increments. So $\Gamma(t+s;1,\nu)-\Gamma(t;1,\nu)$ has a gamma distribution with mean $s$ and variance $s\nu$. (you could replace the $1$ by another parameter $\mu$ if desired, to have mean $s\mu$, as is done here). The intuition is that "time" is measured in some sort of trading volume rather than calendar time. So it incorporates a sense of the market "getting hot" and "getting cold".

This process has the "fat tail" property that you seek, and is commonly used as an option pricing model. It can be used by averaging the Black–Scholes option price with respect to gamma distribution for the time.

The increments of this distribution $Y(t)-Y(s)$ follow a Laplace distribution.

More generally one speaks of what are called Levy process, which have characteristic function $\varphi_{y}(\theta)=E[\exp(i\theta Y_{t})]$:

$$\varphi_{t}(\theta)=\exp\left(it\mu\theta - \frac{t}{2}\sigma^{2}\theta^{2}+t\int_{|x|<\epsilon}[e^{i\theta x}-1-i\theta x]d\Pi(x)+t\int_{|x|>\epsilon}[e^{i\theta x}-1]d\Pi(x)\right)$$

Where $d\Pi(x)$ is called the Levy measure, and governs discontinuities in the process (or the "jumps"). The measure must satisfy:

$$\int_{|x|<\epsilon}x^{2}d\Pi(x)<\infty$$ $$\int_{|x|>\epsilon}d\Pi(x)<\infty$$

Thus it can have a singularity at zero as long it is not "too big". Can show for the variance gamma process the Levy measure is given by:

$$d\Pi(x)=\frac{dx}{\nu|x|}\exp(-\frac{1}{\nu}|x|)$$

UPDATE

In regards to Cardinal's well directed comments (I have a tendency to "wander-off" when I'm doing some sort of maths) you can see that the only criterion for your "fat tailed" distribution to satisfy your criterion is that the moment generating function $m_{X}(t)=E[\exp(tX)]$ exists when evaluated at $t=1$. Equivalently we require the characteristic function to exist when evaluated at $\theta=-i$. Because the Levy-process is defined by its CF then it is always finite when the two integral equations above are satisfied. The expectation is given by the above formula

$\endgroup$
7
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ This is a good start to an answer to the OP's question, I think. The notation should be clarified somewhat, particularly the meaning of $\Gamma[t;\,1,v]$, and the OP's specific queries regarding symmetry (for what values of the parameters?) and the finiteness of $\mathbb{E} e^Y$ should be addressed. There are several freely available references on using these models to price options, so providing those in the answer as well would go along way to wrapping up all loose ends. $\endgroup$
    – cardinal
    Commented Apr 25, 2011 at 0:54
  • $\begingroup$ @probabilityislogic, sorry to pester. That's not my intent. The argument to the ch.f. is treated as a real number and so, lacking more info, your update seems a bit heuristic. Indeed, in the complex plane, the ch.f. Is defined for every point on the imaginary axis only. The mgf, when it exists, is defined on an interval of the real axis around the origin. So, for an argument like yours to work, you'd need to know something more than just the ch.f. Do you mind providing the reference you've used for the development so far? $\endgroup$
    – cardinal
    Commented Apr 26, 2011 at 13:34
  • $\begingroup$ @cardinal - you are right in my argument being a bit heuristic. My references are the article linked in, and my course notes from university - textbook for the course was Options, Futures and Other Derivatives (6th Edition) by John C Hull. I can make it more precise by noting that the expected value of $X^{R}$ is equal to the $R$th derivative of the CF evaluated at $0$ divided by $i^{R}$. Can show that for VG process, the CF is infinitely differentiable at zero - hence all moments exist, hence MGF exist, hence my quick way should give same answer. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 26, 2011 at 14:42
  • $\begingroup$ (cont'd) you can also show more directly by first conditioning on the gamma process $E[\exp(X)|\Gamma]$ which is just a log-normal expectation. Then you can integrate this conditional expectation w.r.t a gamma distribution, and all is good $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 26, 2011 at 14:44
  • $\begingroup$ @probabilityislogic, that's starting to sound closer along with the verification of some necessary continuity assumptions. I still think you may only get an mgf for certain values of the parameters, though. Hull is a pretty good reference for intuition. His math tends to be very hand-wavy, though, if I recall. (I don't know the book well. It must be in its 20th edition or so, by now.) $\endgroup$
    – cardinal
    Commented Apr 26, 2011 at 15:02
3
$\begingroup$

The definition of fat-tail in wikipedia is that

$$p(x)\sim x^{-(\alpha+1)}$$

as $x\to\infty$ for some $\alpha>0$. Now

$$\frac{e^x}{x^{\alpha+1}}\to\infty,$$

as $x\to\infty$, so the $Ee^X$ cannot exist for such type of distributions. So you need to precise what do you have in mind by saying fat-tailed.

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ (+1) It might be worth noting why this is the case, as it may not be clear to all readers. For example, it follows from Markov's inequality. $\endgroup$
    – cardinal
    Commented Apr 26, 2011 at 10:28
  • $\begingroup$ @cardinal, I think more pedestrian reason that the integrand function must at least converge to zero at infinity if we integrate over all line is sufficient. That is why I did not add any notes. $\endgroup$
    – mpiktas
    Commented Apr 26, 2011 at 10:48
  • $\begingroup$ Sorry, I skimmed over your answer a bit too fast. I tend to think of heavy-tailed distributions in terms of upper-tail probabilities, which is where my remark originated from. For me, thinking about upper tails avoids having to make distinctions regarding whether a density exists or not. $\endgroup$
    – cardinal
    Commented Apr 26, 2011 at 11:47

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.