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220
votes
5
answers
278k
views
How exactly does one “control for other variables”?
Here is the article that motivated this question: Does impatience make us fat?
I liked this article, and it nicely demonstrates the concept of “controlling for other variables” (IQ, career, income, a …
197
votes
When conducting multiple regression, when should you center your predictor variables & when ...
However, in general, you do not need to center or standardize your data for multiple regression. …
180
votes
How exactly does one “control for other variables”?
A more common approach is to include the variables you want to control for in a regression model. … Now then, onto the regression model. Type the following:
lm(outcome~exposure)
Did you get an Intercept = 2.0 and an exposure = 0.6766? …
126
votes
Accepted
What is the difference between zero-inflated and hurdle models?
The general form of ZIP regression models incorporating covariates is due to Lambert (1992). … Regression Modeling with Actuarial and Financial Applications Cambridge University Press, 2011
Dalrymple, M. L.; Hudson, I. L. & Ford, R. P. K. …
116
votes
Accepted
Is there a difference between 'controlling for' and 'ignoring' other variables in multiple r...
We want to build a regression model that predicts $Y$, and we are especially interested in its relationship with $X_1$. There are two basic possibilities. … If we fit a regression model that ignored $X_2$, we would get the solid black regression line. …
103
votes
7
answers
21k
views
The Book of Why by Judea Pearl: Why is he bashing statistics?
I mean, a regression model can be used essentially a causal model, since we are essentially assuming that one variable is the cause and another is the effect (hence correlation is different approach from … regression modelling) and testing whether this causal relationship explains the observed patterns. …
87
votes
What is difference-in-differences?
If there is a correlation between the fixed effects and $D_{it}$ then estimating this regression via OLS will be biased given that the fixed effects are not controlled for. … Then you would regress
$$Y_{it} = \beta_1 \gamma_s + \beta_2 \lambda_t + \rho T_{it} + \epsilon_{it}$$
where $\gamma_s$ is again a dummy for the control group and $\lambda_t$ are time dummies. …
81
votes
Accepted
Obtaining predicted values (Y=1 or 0) from a logistic regression model fit
Below is a simulated example using prediction from a logistic regression model to classify. The cutoff is varied to see what cutoff gives the "best" classifier under each of these three measures. … In this example the data comes from a logistic regression model with three predictors (see R code below plot). …
74
votes
Accepted
Why do we do matching for causal inference vs regressing on confounders?
As I see it, there are two related reasons to consider matching instead of regression. … Part 1: Regression
You decide to run a regression of the outcome on the treatment and confounders as a way to control for confounding by these variables because that is what linear regression is supposed …
61
votes
Accepted
Why is Average Treatment Effect different from Average Treatment effect on the Treated?
In general, in an observational study because the above-mentioned assumptions do not generally hold, we either partition our sample accordingly or we control for difference through "regression-like" techniques …
52
votes
Accepted
In a Poisson model, what is the difference between using time as a covariate or an offset?
Offsets can be used in any regression model, but they are much more common when working with count data for your response variable. … (See also this excellent CV thread: When to use an offset in a Poisson regression?)
When used correctly with count data, this will let you model rates instead of counts. …
47
votes
2
answers
4k
views
How well can multiple regression really "control for" covariates?
’re all familiar with observational studies that attempt to establish a causal link between a nonrandomized predictor X and an outcome by including every imaginable potential confounder in a multiple regression … It is difficult for a single model (multiple regression) to
adequately adjust for covariates and simultaneously model the
predictor-outcome relationship. …
44
votes
Is a high $R^2$ ever useless?
You can get great $R^2$ by putting the same variable on the left and right hand side of a regression, but this huge $R^2$ regression would almost certainly be useless. … Adding everything as a regressor is known as a "kitchen sink" regression. …
43
votes
Accepted
Choosing the best model from among different "best" models
Just to give a (famous) example :
https://www.nature.com/articles/nm0601_673
https://doi.org/10.1023/A:1012487302797
All these methods have regression variants for continuous data as well. …
41
votes
Accepted
Overfitting a logistic regression model
Yes, you can overfit logistic regression models. … It is indeed possible to overfit a logistic regression model. …