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Spillovers occurs when an idiosyncratic shock in one asset is transmitted to another (through the portfolio rebalancing channel mainly). A volatility shock is a significant shift of an asset volatility. I use the Diebold-Yilmaz (2012) methodology to estimate the cross-assets spillovers, and the volatility shock is estimated, as in Bloom (2009) !
Sorry, I've edited the question with much more details, hope it's enough (and I've modified the question as the conditional volatility measured in a GARCH is clearly not exogeneous !)
I'll add more context in the above question. I have series of cross-asset spillovers that I want to explain with relative volatility of each asset. However, volatility (shocks) isn't exogeneous to spillovers, so I was looking for a method to model this relationship in the best way