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Jun 2, 2014 at 17:44 answer added user44764 timeline score: 0
Jun 2, 2014 at 17:44 answer added jaradniemi timeline score: 1
Jun 2, 2014 at 1:33 comment added Glen_b That clarifying information should probably go in your question
Jun 2, 2014 at 0:25 comment added user1375871 $\tau$ is the between studies precision which is unknown. $\tau_i$ is the within-study precision which is known from the data.
Jun 1, 2014 at 20:18 comment added Sean Easter Do you have any other prior beliefs for $\tau_i$, or any assumptions about how it should be modeled? I can't quite suss out why there are two sources of variance.
Jun 1, 2014 at 19:18 comment added user1375871 Yes $\tau_i$ is observed in each study. It is not assumed to be drawn from the same gamma
Jun 1, 2014 at 18:40 comment added Sean Easter By the mixture property of the normal distribution, $Y_i | \theta_i$ is given by $N(\mu, \frac{1}{\tau} + \frac{1}{\tau_i})$. Is $\tau_i$ observed in each study, and assumed drawn from the same gamma distribution?
Jun 1, 2014 at 18:17 history asked user1375871 CC BY-SA 3.0