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May 11, 2017 at 9:17 answer added Stéphane Laurent timeline score: 1
May 11, 2017 at 7:40 history edited amoeba
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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:44 history edited CommunityBot
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Mar 30, 2016 at 3:11 history tweeted twitter.com/StackStats/status/715013573987209216
Jun 20, 2014 at 19:19 comment added Joz See edit in the original question. It would be nice if someone could confirm the correctness of the solution. Thanks a lot for your help so far!!
Jun 20, 2014 at 18:56 history edited Joz CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 20, 2014 at 18:40 history edited Joz CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 20, 2014 at 17:52 history edited Joz CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 20, 2014 at 15:27 history edited Joz CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 19, 2014 at 19:25 comment added Avraham Two notes. Firstly, $P(X=x)$ for any random variable $X$ which has a continuous distribution is 0. Secondly, I think you need the denominator in your first step. Specifically $ E\left[X\vert X<q_\theta\right] = \frac{\int_{-\infty}^\infty xf(x\vert x < q_\theta)dx}{\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x\vert x < q_\theta)dx}$ The expectation is only over the viable area.
Jun 19, 2014 at 19:02 comment added whuber I believe that if you consult your favorite definition of conditional distribution, this question will resolve itself easily. In particular I am thinking of the relationship $\Pr(A|B)\Pr(B)=\Pr(A)$ where $A$ is the event $X\le x$ and $B$ is the event $X\le q_\theta$.
Jun 19, 2014 at 18:32 history asked Joz CC BY-SA 3.0