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Timeline for CDF raised to a power?

Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0

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May 20, 2011 at 19:11 comment added cardinal @G. Jay, yes it does. As a check, $x = g^{-1}( g(x) )$ for all $x$ in the domain. ($g^{-1}$ is composed of a set of functions all of which have inverses. So, that should have been clear[er] from the start.)
May 20, 2011 at 18:02 comment added user1108 @cardinal does it not? I added material to my answer which suggests to me that it does?
May 17, 2011 at 13:21 comment added cardinal @JMS: It was a good observation, nonetheless. :)
May 16, 2011 at 23:59 comment added JMS @cardinal It's fantastic that I wrote that comment whilst oblivious to that fact...
May 16, 2011 at 14:41 comment added cardinal @G. Jay Kerns, perhaps I'm having a "slow" day, but I don't believe your candidate $g$ works as you intended.
May 16, 2011 at 13:37 comment added user1108 Continuing @cardinal's thought - in the case of a strictly increasing CDF (for example) we could just solve for $g$ directly to get $g = F^{-1}(F^{1/\alpha})$. The probability integral transform gives that the inner quantity is $U^{1/\alpha}$, that is, a Beta. The inverse CDF is closed form sometimes (exponential, pareto....) but even when it isn't we can calculate it pretty easily in many cases. Exponential works out nicely.
May 15, 2011 at 12:05 comment added cardinal @JMS, Yes, but $\mathrm{Beta}(a,1)$ essentially are the transformations of $\mathcal{U}[0,1]$ of the type described in the question. :)
May 15, 2011 at 3:11 comment added JMS @cardinal I never would have thought of such a rare distribution... but now that you mention it a $Beta(a, 1)$ should work in general, giving you back a $Beta(a\alpha, 1)$.
May 15, 2011 at 2:38 comment added cardinal @JMS: $Z \sim \mathcal{U}[0,1]$ would be one positive example.
May 14, 2011 at 23:28 comment added JMS @brianjd - What @cardinal said :) I couldn't even think of a special case for $F_Z$ where you'd get a closed form (not to say there isn't one of course).
May 14, 2011 at 16:17 comment added cardinal @brianjd: I don't believe so. Let $g$ be a continuous strictly monotonic function (hence, having a well-defined inverse $g^{-1}$) that satisfies your conditions. Then, it must be that $\renewcommand{\Pr}{\mathbb{P}}\Phi^{\alpha}(u) = \Pr(g(Z) \leq u) = \Pr( Z \leq g^{-1}(u)) = \Phi(g^{-1}(u))$ and so $g^{-1}(u) = \Phi^{-1}(\Phi^{\alpha}(u))$. So the inverse is identified fairly explicitly, but not $g$ itself. This is what I meant in my previous comment about $g$ being found implicitly.
May 14, 2011 at 15:45 comment added lowndrul @JMS: What about $Z \sim N(0,1)$ ?
May 13, 2011 at 22:55 history answered JMS CC BY-SA 3.0