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Nov 12, 2014 at 12:26 comment added John McKenzie You're amazing mate, thanks heaps, I really appreciate it!! Unfortunately my rep is too low to vote up, but I marked it as answer accepted. It makes so much more sense now. Thank You!!
Nov 12, 2014 at 12:23 vote accept John McKenzie
Nov 12, 2014 at 12:18 comment added Nick Cox Indeed. In that case the correlation is not just positive but identically $1$ even though agreement is clearly imperfect. But watch out: what you are calling "nonlinear" is a plot of velocity versus time, which whatever its interest has nothing to do with the correlation between values paired for the same times. What is linear and what is nonlinear depends entirely on what graph you are looking at.
Nov 12, 2014 at 12:12 comment added John McKenzie I think I sort of understand, so say in one device I get velocity values 5,10,15,20,15,10,5 and the second device I get 8,13,18,23,18,13,8 (All 3 values higher) this would show a positive correlation as device 1=y and device 2 = x and the linearity is that y=x+3 assuming b=1. So even through the velocity values here increase then decrease (nonlinear) the correlation is still linear?
Nov 12, 2014 at 12:04 history answered Nick Cox CC BY-SA 3.0