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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:44 history edited CommunityBot
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Mar 7, 2017 at 8:09 history edited amoeba
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Mar 2, 2017 at 14:46 history edited amoeba
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Dec 10, 2016 at 19:38 answer added gung - Reinstate Monica timeline score: 6
Dec 10, 2016 at 16:56 answer added John timeline score: 3
Oct 12, 2016 at 18:06 comment added RockTheStar @what, interesting. Hmm...so what's the default medium effect size for wilcoxon? I have seen 0.3 or 0.5
Oct 12, 2016 at 4:54 comment added user14650 @RockTheStar Look here: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Effect_size and here: stats.stackexchange.com/questions/15749/… Both discuss the correlation coefficient as a measure for effect size.
Oct 11, 2016 at 21:21 comment added Carl @RockTheStar The images above are for the Wilcoxon signed rank test, and the question preceding looks like some variation of the Wilcoxon rank sum test, AKA Mann-Whitney test, $\rho$ statistic.
Oct 11, 2016 at 20:40 comment added user14650 @RockTheStar I'm sorry, this question is one and a half years old – I don't remember what I was reading back then.
Oct 11, 2016 at 20:31 comment added RockTheStar @what can you provides references for which the authors suggest to use Bravais-Pearson or spearman coefficient for effect size? Thanks.
Oct 11, 2016 at 20:21 comment added RockTheStar @Carl what do you mean by one n, do you mean the formula is Z/sqrt(n+n)?
Sep 19, 2016 at 21:27 comment added Carl When Wilcoxon is a paired test, there is only one $n$. When doing Wilcoxon-Mann-Whitney, there are two independent samples with different $n$'s.
Jan 13, 2015 at 8:57 comment added ttnphns I personally thought that Z/sqrt(n) might be one option. Wikipedia on Mann-Whitney links to a pdf paper by Kirby which considers paired Wilcoxon as well; I haven't read the article myself.
Jan 13, 2015 at 6:04 comment added user14650 Then what is an appropriate-to-ordinal-nonnornal-data standardized measure, and why (source)?
Jan 12, 2015 at 21:23 comment added ttnphns Hodges-Lehmann pseudomedian isn't a standardized measure. Effect size by definition must be a standardized measure.
Jan 12, 2015 at 17:43 comment added user14650 @HorstGrünbusch I use the Hodges-Lehmann estimator to calculate effect size, but want to report a more traditional measure alongside it, such as Spearman's correlation (tha data is ordinal and the distribution unknown but not normal). I stumbled upon the first formula and just want to understand it. As you can see from my other question, I don't even understand what that Z is.
Jan 12, 2015 at 14:10 comment added Horst Grünbusch $X$,$Y$ and $Z$ reflect only the ranks. The ranks however are "artificial". You interpret the statistics in terms of the observation, not the ranks. Therefore power calculations or CI in terms of some location model, that translates the "natural" effect size to the rank statistics world make sense. So I'm not sure if the procedures in this question actually are useful.
Jan 12, 2015 at 13:37 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackStats/status/554633142121021440
Jan 12, 2015 at 13:22 comment added ttnphns Very strange. Why do they state that the effect size may be calculated exactly as for the independent-samples test (Mann-Whitney)? It looks to me incorrect.
Jan 12, 2015 at 12:47 history edited user14650 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 12, 2015 at 12:41 comment added user14650 @ttnphns See the image I attached to my question.
Jan 12, 2015 at 12:34 history edited user14650 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 12, 2015 at 12:12 comment added user14650 The instruction in the book I quote in my comment above (Pallant, 2007, p. 225) says that the n in $\sqrt{n}$ is the number of all observations, that is the sum of the length of both vectors, i.e. $n = n_x + n_y$, not the number of participants. So the formula is the same, you only have to correctly understand what "n" stands for. If that is wrong, please educate me. This is after all what my question is aiming at.
Jan 12, 2015 at 12:04 comment added ttnphns Why not to compute effect size as $z/\sqrt{n}$ analogously to paired-sample t-test's effect size $t/\sqrt{n}$?
Jan 12, 2015 at 10:16 comment added user14650 Yes, because I need a test that can handle ties.
Jan 12, 2015 at 9:58 comment added Glen_b Ah, I see from your linked question you don't mean R's signed rank test, you mean one in the package coin.
Jan 12, 2015 at 9:47 comment added user14650 As for Z, that is what R and SPSS output. See also my other question: stackoverflow.com/questions/27896655/… That it can be used to calculate effect sizes is for example said in Pallant, J. (2007). SPSS Survival Manual. p. 225.
Jan 12, 2015 at 9:01 comment added Glen_b Who says which and what justification do they offer? Who calls the signed rank statistic $Z$? (or is that a standardized signed rank statistic?). In what sense are they an effect size?
Jan 12, 2015 at 7:53 history edited user14650 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 12, 2015 at 7:42 history edited user14650 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 12, 2015 at 7:28 comment added user14650 lol I added the formula to make it clear what I mean.
Jan 12, 2015 at 7:27 comment added Glen_b I'd much rather leave it as it is - if Bravais deserves credit in one language, he deserves it in another! I appreciate the filling of a gap in my education.
Jan 12, 2015 at 7:27 history edited user14650 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 12, 2015 at 7:24 comment added user14650 @Glen_b Yes, that's it. I'm sorry, I always find it difficult and confusing when I have to translate statistical terminology into English. Please edit the question if you know the proper term(s).
Jan 12, 2015 at 7:20 comment added Glen_b Ah, yes, looks like maybe that's it.
Jan 12, 2015 at 7:18 comment added Glen_b Bravais-Pearson is a new one on me. I take it this is another case of Pearson getting credit when someone else was there first?
Jan 12, 2015 at 6:58 history edited user14650 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 12, 2015 at 6:30 history asked user14650 CC BY-SA 3.0