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Oct 29, 2023 at 23:20 answer added ThomasHobbes timeline score: 3
Dec 22, 2022 at 12:00 history tweeted twitter.com/StackStats/status/1605895952576962560
May 18, 2021 at 15:50 answer added Lerner Zhang timeline score: 0
Mar 5, 2017 at 2:02 comment added Michael R. Chernick @nail You are wrong to say that ML is a subset of LSE. If you look at the Gauss-Markov Theorem you will see that the estimators differ based on the distribution of the data.
Mar 4, 2017 at 18:27 answer added Lerner Zhang timeline score: 44
Dec 12, 2015 at 21:40 comment added whuber An answer is also provided at stats.stackexchange.com/questions/12562/….
Sep 13, 2015 at 11:00 comment added nali @TrynnaDoStat: No it's not the case. ML and LSE are not the same. In fact ML is an different approach which can emulate a subset of LSE and other estimators. See my answer for further details.
Sep 13, 2015 at 1:24 answer added nali timeline score: 16
Mar 27, 2015 at 19:17 comment added evros thanks for all the replies. Now this makes sense. While searching for this topic on the net, I came across this article. Maybe this also helps:radfordneal.wordpress.com/2008/08/09/…
Mar 27, 2015 at 17:41 comment added whuber Search our site for the Gauss-Markov theorem.
S Mar 27, 2015 at 15:25 history suggested Richard Hardy CC BY-SA 3.0
Added MLE and OLS tags, fixed grammar
Mar 27, 2015 at 15:14 review Suggested edits
S Mar 27, 2015 at 15:25
Mar 27, 2015 at 15:07 comment added TrynnaDoStat Under normal error assumption, as is typically assumed in linear regression, the MLE and the LSE are the same!
Mar 27, 2015 at 14:58 review First posts
Mar 27, 2015 at 15:12
Mar 27, 2015 at 14:57 comment added Richard Hardy You can use MLE in linear regression if you like. This can even make sense if the error distribution is non-normal and your goal is to obtain the "most likely" estimate rather than one which minimizes the sum of squares.
Mar 27, 2015 at 14:54 history asked evros CC BY-SA 3.0