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May 10, 2015 at 3:06 comment added user179313 Sorry for the confusion. I meant that the bi-directional causality may exist is just conceptually, nothing related to statistical inference.
May 9, 2015 at 1:46 history edited katya CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 9, 2015 at 1:45 comment added katya @user179313: why do you 'assume there must be a bi-directional causality' and how does it relate to the decision to use secondary axes with such small proportion of variance explained? ps I apologize for my last question, which I will edit, I was meaning to ask whether they are cross-correlated (not sure what happened there)
May 8, 2015 at 20:39 comment added user179313 I predicted the scores for 3 components & got the correlation among the components and original items. Correlation between the predicted scores of component 1 and the original items are higher than that of component 2, except the correlation between 2c and predicted scores of component 1. The cross-corr. is generally linear. Now I plan to use the predicted scores of components 2 and 3 as instruments for my variable of interest (IV); I assume there must be a bi-directional causality between my IV & DV. So do you think if it is possible to use components 2 and 3 as instrument variables?
May 8, 2015 at 20:38 comment added user179313 Thanks, @Katya! Please see above for my another curious question.
May 7, 2015 at 2:16 history answered katya CC BY-SA 3.0