Timeline for Calculating the probability of gene list overlap between an RNA seq and a ChIP-chip data set
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
3 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Oct 16, 2022 at 5:25 | comment | added | kane9530 | Intuitively, why wouldn't the probability of getting 100 or more be much lower than 20% (1 in 5)? | |
| Oct 1, 2011 at 20:56 | comment | added | stlandroidfan | Thanks for your answer. Hypergeometric distributions tend to be used more frequently for gene list overlaps from what I have seen in literature. The question is what is the probability of getting 100 or more white balls in a sample of size 400 from an urn with 3000 white balls and 12000 black balls? I think I'm still perplexed by how to explain this to a bunch of biologists? The way they see it is 3000:12000 is a 1:5 chance of white:black. So in a sampling of 400, 80 should be white. So how come the probability of getting 100 or more is so much lower than 20% (1 in 5)? | |
| Sep 30, 2011 at 3:41 | history | answered | Adam | CC BY-SA 3.0 |