Timeline for Is the dependent variable, $Y$, considered identically distributed in a linear regression model
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Feb 9, 2021 at 18:42 | answer | added | sergiu | timeline score: 0 | |
| May 10, 2017 at 7:29 | answer | added | Tim | timeline score: 2 | |
| Oct 2, 2015 at 20:55 | comment | added | whuber♦ | That is a curious comment in that it uses "normal distribution" in two different senses within the same sentence! | |
| Oct 2, 2015 at 19:50 | comment | added | Victor | Thanks. I thought 'identical' means that they are both drawn from the normal distribution, didn't think that they need to be drawn from the same normal distribution | |
| Oct 2, 2015 at 19:36 | history | edited | jlimahaverford | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
edited title
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| Oct 2, 2015 at 19:31 | comment | added | whuber♦ | "Identical" implies the distributions will have the same mean. When $\beta_1 \ne 0$ andf $x_i \ne x_j$, do you suppose the means $\beta_0 + \beta_1 x_i$ and $\beta_0 + \beta_1 x_j$ will be the same? | |
| Oct 2, 2015 at 19:28 | history | asked | Victor | CC BY-SA 3.0 |