Timeline for standard deviation for regression
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
14 events
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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:44 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
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Dec 23, 2015 at 1:39 | vote | accept | whoisit | ||
Dec 22, 2015 at 11:34 | comment | added | user83346 | @whoisit: you're welcome, glad I could help you and if you like the answer, don't forget to vote for it or if you realy like it, make it your best answer | |
Dec 22, 2015 at 11:13 | comment | added | whoisit | Thank you so so much for your answer, it really help me so much | |
Dec 22, 2015 at 10:34 | history | edited | user83346 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Dec 22, 2015 at 10:15 | history | edited | user83346 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Dec 22, 2015 at 10:08 | history | edited | user83346 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Dec 22, 2015 at 10:01 | comment | added | user83346 | @whoisit: I have edited the answer | |
Dec 22, 2015 at 1:23 | comment | added | whoisit | sorry I don't know how to type the math symbol, you know we have a formula instead of use s directly, I will add the picture in my question | |
Dec 22, 2015 at 1:17 | comment | added | whoisit | many thanks for your detailed answer. It really helped a lot. One last thing I don't get is, let's say we estimate the sample deviation s, then we can from the model of W^=β0^+β1^×1.75 we have one response value w^ when predictor is 1.75, then we can say 95% the true weight value will be from w^-2s to w^-2s (I know the t value should not be 2,as the df is n-2, but let's have it for convenience). why we still have some complicated formula like s\sqrt{\frac{1}{n}+\frac{{(x*-x)}^2}{(n-1)S_{x}^{2}}}, why don't we just simply use s? | |
Dec 21, 2015 at 15:11 | history | edited | user83346 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Dec 21, 2015 at 14:53 | history | edited | user83346 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Dec 21, 2015 at 14:46 | history | edited | user83346 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Dec 21, 2015 at 14:40 | history | answered | user83346 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |