Timeline for Is Independent jeffreys prior different from independent reference prior?
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Feb 25, 2016 at 8:59 | history | edited | beuhbbb | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Feb 17, 2016 at 13:25 | history | edited | beuhbbb | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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S Feb 16, 2016 at 9:58 | history | bounty ended | CommunityBot | ||
S Feb 16, 2016 at 9:58 | history | notice removed | CommunityBot | ||
Feb 13, 2016 at 18:19 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackStats/status/698572118024462337 | ||
S Feb 8, 2016 at 8:17 | history | bounty started | beuhbbb | ||
S Feb 8, 2016 at 8:17 | history | notice added | beuhbbb | Draw attention | |
Feb 8, 2016 at 8:07 | history | edited | beuhbbb | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Feb 6, 2016 at 15:48 | comment | added | beuhbbb | @glen_b. No. I am asking if the independent reference prior for $n$ scalar parameters can be different from taking the product of the $n$ Jeffreys prior for each parameter independently (assuming it is possible). | |
Feb 6, 2016 at 5:57 | comment | added | Glen_b | In 1. are you asking if it's possible to have a reference prior that's not a Jeffreys' prior? | |
Feb 5, 2016 at 20:07 | history | edited | Sean Easter | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Jan 28, 2016 at 12:01 | history | edited | beuhbbb | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Jan 28, 2016 at 10:47 | history | edited | beuhbbb | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Jan 28, 2016 at 10:40 | history | asked | beuhbbb | CC BY-SA 3.0 |