Timeline for Is the sample mean a better point estimate of the population median than the sample median?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jan 10, 2019 at 20:34 | review | Suggested edits | |||
| Jan 10, 2019 at 23:44 | |||||
| Jun 7, 2017 at 9:37 | history | edited | kjetil b halvorsen♦ |
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| Apr 5, 2017 at 0:50 | comment | added | David Lane | I don't think the text of the question matches the title. | |
| Apr 4, 2017 at 23:55 | answer | added | kjetil b halvorsen♦ | timeline score: 3 | |
| Mar 18, 2016 at 2:27 | comment | added | Glen_b | Possible duplicate of For what (symmetric) distributions is sample mean a more efficient estimator than sample median? | |
| Mar 18, 2016 at 2:21 | comment | added | Glen_b | Which text? Where did it say this? Did you leave out anything important, like some prior statement of the distribution for which this claim is made? (I imagine it's probably intended to be under i.i.d. sampling from a normal distribution). As a general claim, it is of course false, so if they don't mention that it only applies in some cases, you should probably have doubts about what else you read in that book. The Laplace is a common counterexample to your question at the end there. | |
| Mar 17, 2016 at 9:44 | history | asked | N26 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |