Timeline for In what situations does the sample mean equal the population mean?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
14 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Sep 8, 2021 at 17:29 | comment | added | Alexis | @AlexR. Excepting, perhaps, a degenerate case where all values are identical? (I.e. variance is 0) | |
Sep 8, 2021 at 16:00 | history | bumped | CommunityBot | This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed. | |
May 11, 2021 at 14:06 | history | bumped | CommunityBot | This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed. | |
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Aug 19, 2019 at 13:01 | history | bumped | CommunityBot | This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed. | |
Apr 17, 2019 at 15:01 | comment | added | guy | Your friends argument is correct if you interpret the expectation $\mathbb E$ as being relative to the empirical distribution of the data. In that case, it is trivially true that $\mathbb E X = \bar X$ for example. | |
Apr 17, 2019 at 13:02 | history | bumped | CommunityBot | This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed. | |
Apr 18, 2016 at 18:56 | comment | added | Alex R. | If the random variables have a continuous distribution, then the answer is never. With something like the binomial distribution, there's a small chance for equality only if $pn$ is an integer. | |
Apr 18, 2016 at 6:32 | answer | added | RomRom | timeline score: 2 | |
Apr 18, 2016 at 5:03 | history | edited | Stan Shunpike | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 121 characters in body
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Apr 18, 2016 at 4:50 | history | asked | Stan Shunpike | CC BY-SA 3.0 |