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Sep 8, 2021 at 17:29 comment added Alexis @AlexR. Excepting, perhaps, a degenerate case where all values are identical? (I.e. variance is 0)
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Apr 17, 2019 at 15:01 comment added guy Your friends argument is correct if you interpret the expectation $\mathbb E$ as being relative to the empirical distribution of the data. In that case, it is trivially true that $\mathbb E X = \bar X$ for example.
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Apr 18, 2016 at 18:56 comment added Alex R. If the random variables have a continuous distribution, then the answer is never. With something like the binomial distribution, there's a small chance for equality only if $pn$ is an integer.
Apr 18, 2016 at 6:32 answer added RomRom timeline score: 2
Apr 18, 2016 at 5:03 history edited Stan Shunpike CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 18, 2016 at 4:50 history asked Stan Shunpike CC BY-SA 3.0