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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:44 history edited CommunityBot
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Jul 24, 2016 at 2:46 history tweeted twitter.com/StackStats/status/757044185392377856
Jul 21, 2016 at 1:59 vote accept Creatron
Jul 21, 2016 at 1:59 history edited Creatron CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 20, 2016 at 7:05 history edited amoeba CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 20, 2016 at 2:58 history edited Creatron CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 19, 2016 at 23:27 answer added Michael Hardy timeline score: 8
S Jul 19, 2016 at 23:20 history suggested Michael Hardy CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 19, 2016 at 23:19 review Suggested edits
S Jul 19, 2016 at 23:20
Jul 19, 2016 at 12:05 history edited Tim
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Jul 18, 2016 at 23:49 answer added amoeba timeline score: 30
Jul 18, 2016 at 22:10 comment added whuber When $\theta$ is a random variate (that is, a value considered to arise from random variable $\Theta$), nothing in the definition of likelihood changes. It's still a likelihood. Logically, this is no different than saying that a blue butterfly is still a butterfly. Technically, it raises issues about the joint distribution of $\Theta$ and $x$. Evidently this joint distribution must be well defined and enjoy certain "regularity conditions" before you may identify the likelihood with a conditional probability.
Jul 18, 2016 at 21:37 comment added Creatron @whuber Thanks - I have updated my question (under "Edit"), re-consolidating the question based on this new knowledge. I think the only remaining ambiguity in my mind is the last point on reconciling what has been said with the term in Bayes rule...
Jul 18, 2016 at 21:36 history edited Creatron CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 18, 2016 at 20:15 comment added whuber Some people do indeed use such a typographic convention with semicolons. There are many, many conventions: subscripts, superscripts, etc. You often have to figure out what somebody means from the context or their text descriptions of what they are doing.
Jul 18, 2016 at 19:55 comment added Creatron @whuber Ok, so am I to then understand that in this context, $P(x|\theta)$ is read (in English) as "The probability of X=x, parameterized on param= $\theta$"? If that is indeed that case, why isn't then simply written as $P(X=x; param= \theta)$? I ask not to be pedantic, but to simply arm me for further understanding in my studies. Thank you.
Jul 18, 2016 at 19:31 history edited amoeba CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 18, 2016 at 19:27 history edited Creatron CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 18, 2016 at 14:49 comment added whuber "Given that" does not always mean conditional probability. Sometimes this phrase is merely an attempt to indicate what symbols are intended to be fixed in a calculation or conceptually.
Jul 18, 2016 at 11:38 answer added Tim timeline score: 20
Jul 18, 2016 at 9:51 history edited Tim CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 18, 2016 at 9:45 history edited Tim CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 17, 2016 at 19:47 comment added Creatron @Tim Excellent link thanks! Unfortunately I am still unclear as to the specific questions I have vis-a-vis Likelihood and the conditional probability (?) that it seems to conjures. On this, I am still unclear. :-/
Jul 16, 2016 at 7:24 comment added Tim You already got two nice answers but check also stats.stackexchange.com/q/112451/35989
Jul 16, 2016 at 1:08 answer added Michael Lew timeline score: 8
Jul 15, 2016 at 23:51 answer added Alex R. timeline score: 3
Jul 15, 2016 at 23:44 history asked Creatron CC BY-SA 3.0