Timeline for Intuitive explanation for dividing by $n-1$ when calculating standard deviation?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
6 events
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Jun 26, 2017 at 18:33 | comment | added | Laurent Duval | I understand. To answer an intuitive explanation between two options, I tried to suggest that one of the two is somehow unacceptable, based on the mundane rule that $0 < \infty$. A rephrasing is indeed necessary, and upcoming | |
Jun 26, 2017 at 16:42 | comment | added | whuber♦ | It is unclear why "an infinite variance would be a sounder result" than a zero variance. Indeed, you seem to use "sample variance" in the sense of a variance estimator, which is more confusing yet. | |
Jun 25, 2017 at 21:08 | history | edited | Laurent Duval | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 141 characters in body
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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:44 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
replaced http://stats.stackexchange.com/ with https://stats.stackexchange.com/
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Oct 6, 2016 at 20:55 | history | edited | Laurent Duval | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
corrected typo
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Sep 2, 2016 at 20:49 | history | answered | Laurent Duval | CC BY-SA 3.0 |