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Jun 26, 2017 at 18:33 comment added Laurent Duval I understand. To answer an intuitive explanation between two options, I tried to suggest that one of the two is somehow unacceptable, based on the mundane rule that $0 < \infty$. A rephrasing is indeed necessary, and upcoming
Jun 26, 2017 at 16:42 comment added whuber It is unclear why "an infinite variance would be a sounder result" than a zero variance. Indeed, you seem to use "sample variance" in the sense of a variance estimator, which is more confusing yet.
Jun 25, 2017 at 21:08 history edited Laurent Duval CC BY-SA 3.0
added 141 characters in body
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:44 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://stats.stackexchange.com/ with https://stats.stackexchange.com/
Oct 6, 2016 at 20:55 history edited Laurent Duval CC BY-SA 3.0
corrected typo
Sep 2, 2016 at 20:49 history answered Laurent Duval CC BY-SA 3.0