Timeline for Correlation coefficient for use with nonlinear finite sets
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Mar 1, 2012 at 1:52 | comment | added | whuber♦ | Because not all association has to be related to variation. The intuition expressed by the O.P. is that when $X$ and $Y$ are both consistently at the high end of established ranges, they are associated. In this sense, even when there's no variation within $X$ or $Y$, one could say they are simultaneously high. It is potentially confusing to call this "correlation," which it's not, but it sounds like a valid concept to me. | |
| Mar 1, 2012 at 0:48 | comment | added | Peter Flom | @whuber Maybe I am still confused! If a variable doesn't vary, how can it be associated with anything? | |
| Feb 29, 2012 at 16:18 | comment | added | whuber♦ | I think you may have misinterpreted the (first version of this) question, Peter, because there are plenty of measures of association that will do what the OP is asking for. | |
| Feb 29, 2012 at 14:51 | comment | added | ileitch | Thanks, Peter. I have updated my question with a simple explanation. | |
| Feb 29, 2012 at 14:12 | history | answered | Peter Flom | CC BY-SA 3.0 |