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Nov 20, 2016 at 2:29 vote accept Clarinetist
Nov 20, 2016 at 2:21 comment added mark999 Yes, although the weights only have to be proportional to 1/variance, not necessarily equal. For example, if you use weights <- c(50, 85, 75)/2 in your example, you get the same result.
Nov 20, 2016 at 2:14 comment added Clarinetist Thank you for clearing up the incorrect design matrix, especially! I'm quite rusty on this material. So, as one last question, does this mean that $\text{Var}(\boldsymbol\epsilon) = \text{diag}(1/\text{weights})$ in the WLS assumptions?
Nov 20, 2016 at 2:11 history answered mark999 CC BY-SA 3.0