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Dec 9, 2016 at 13:10 comment added Christoph Hanck Maybe it was tacitly ignored as we cannot do anything about the irreducible part anyhow.
Dec 9, 2016 at 13:08 comment added Tony unfortunately it's from a private course materials. But there really isn't anything more to it. g(t) is the fit and ^g(t) is its estimate.
Dec 9, 2016 at 13:03 comment added Christoph Hanck That is tough to say without knowing what $g$ precisely is. Can you provide a reference?
Dec 9, 2016 at 13:02 comment added Tony I was also able to find a source that says: $MSE[ˆ g(t)] = [E(ˆ g(t)−g(t))]^2 + V ar(ˆ g(t))$. Derived from $MSE[ˆ g(t)] = E[(ˆ g(t)−g(t))^2]$. Nowhere is it stated that the noise is 0. Is this a mistake?
Dec 9, 2016 at 12:45 vote accept Tony
Dec 9, 2016 at 12:34 history answered Christoph Hanck CC BY-SA 3.0