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Mar 30, 2017 at 16:00 comment added hamilthj Thanks for your explanation. Could this work the same way where two variables significantly predict y when the are regressed independently of one another but when they are both used to predict Y in a multiple linear regression, neither are significant because of high covariance between the two? Also, is the p-value from a Pearson's cor the same as a correlation from a simple regression though?
Mar 30, 2017 at 15:54 vote accept hamilthj
Mar 30, 2017 at 6:29 history answered ams CC BY-SA 3.0