Timeline for What is the probability (area) of overlap of two normal distributions having EQUAL variance
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
12 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jul 18, 2017 at 22:34 | answer | added | Glen_b | timeline score: 2 | |
| Jul 18, 2017 at 22:02 | comment | added | David_D | @Glen_b, thanks for your hint, I think I came to the solution, because the proportions I get makes sense as compared to the chart and what I see there. No need for Erf function in this case, I just mentioned it in relation with wolfies post. Thanks to him as well. | |
| Jul 18, 2017 at 21:50 | comment | added | David_D | Yes @gung, I am asking about the proportion of the area under one PDF is also under the other PDF. | |
| Jul 18, 2017 at 21:37 | history | edited | David_D |
edited tags
|
|
| Jul 18, 2017 at 12:26 | history | reopened | whuber♦ distributions Users with the distributions badge or a synonym can single-handedly close distributions questions as duplicates and reopen them as needed. | ||
| Jul 18, 2017 at 12:25 | history | closed | whuber♦ distributions Users with the distributions badge or a synonym can single-handedly close distributions questions as duplicates and reopen them as needed. | Duplicate of Calculate probability (area) under the overlapping area of two normal distributions | |
| Jul 18, 2017 at 12:24 | comment | added | gung - Reinstate Monica | You also need to explain what you mean by "overlap" in this context. The normal distribution goes to infinity in both directions, so in one sense, they overlap completely. Are you asking the proportion of the area under one PDF is also under the other PDF? | |
| Jul 18, 2017 at 12:22 | comment | added | gung - Reinstate Monica |
Please add the [self-study] tag & read its wiki. Then tell us what you understand thus far, what you've tried & where you're stuck. We'll provide hints to help you get unstuck.
|
|
| Jul 18, 2017 at 11:38 | comment | added | Glen_b | In the case where $\sigma_1=\sigma_2$, the value of $c$ is (obviously) midway between the means $c=(\mu_1+\mu_2)/2$. The overlapping area should be given by the formula in the answer. It's not clear to me why you'd use $\text{erf}$ though, since there's a normal cdf function in Excel, which would be considerably simpler to call (going from the $1-F_1(c)+F_2(c)$ line). | |
| Jul 18, 2017 at 10:12 | history | edited | Sven Hohenstein | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
deleted 4 characters in body
|
| Jul 18, 2017 at 10:12 | review | First posts | |||
| Jul 18, 2017 at 12:24 | |||||
| Jul 18, 2017 at 10:08 | history | asked | David_D | CC BY-SA 3.0 |