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Oct 3, 2017 at 12:58 comment added Andrea $Sales_t$= $\alpha$ + $\beta_1$ $price_t$ + $\beta_2$ $mkt expenses_t$ + $\beta'$ $X'$ + $\epsilon_t$ where $X'$ is a vector of control variables don't change over time. On the other hand: $mkt expenses_t$=$\alpha$ + $Sales_{t-1}$ +$\beta'$ $Z'$ + $\epsilon_t$. I want to underline that this work is at a very preliminary stage..actually I'm only investigating what I can do with my dataset.
Oct 3, 2017 at 12:35 comment added Aksakal Can you write down your equations?
Oct 3, 2017 at 12:32 comment added Andrea Thank you both for your comments. @Aksakal, I know it seems unusual, but in my specific case Y is not autocorrelated (there would be a lot to write to justify this, but trust me). That's way I'm interested to know if in this specific case there is a simultaneity problem or not...
Oct 3, 2017 at 12:15 history edited Richard Hardy CC BY-SA 3.0
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S Oct 3, 2017 at 11:58 history suggested user77876 CC BY-SA 3.0
English grammar and structure.
Oct 3, 2017 at 11:37 comment added Aksakal It's hard to consider Y not autocorrelated. Sales data is very persistent and almost always autocorrelated. You may wont to look at differences both in Y and X, and lag dY on dX. Do you have marketing expense budget variable? You could look at the diff between expense and its budget as another predictor
Oct 3, 2017 at 11:23 review Suggested edits
S Oct 3, 2017 at 11:58
Oct 3, 2017 at 10:53 comment added alexeymosco I am not an expert in this particular task, but I found this to be an interesting reading: statisticshowto.com/instrumental-variable As for me I suggest measuring the obsrved correlation between X t and Y t-1 to be sure the effect is significant to even consider it in the design.
Oct 3, 2017 at 10:30 history asked Andrea CC BY-SA 3.0