Timeline for Difference between using a z-score or a percentiles to summarize data in normal and skewed distributions
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jan 17, 2018 at 20:44 | comment | added | whuber♦ | @Moss That's a correct mathematical statement--but it doesn't sound practically useful. Regardless, it's a definite and important difference, which seems to me like it contradicts your original opinion of "no fundamental difference." | |
| Jan 17, 2018 at 20:28 | comment | added | Moss Murderer | @whuber: Yes, the theoretical relation between z-score and percentile given by the normal pdf need not apply to any given dataset, but the empirical relationship between the two measures is guaranteed to be a monotone function, so the two measures are equivalent in the sense that you can freely go back and forth between the two, no? | |
| Jan 17, 2018 at 16:56 | answer | added | AdamO | timeline score: 2 | |
| Jan 17, 2018 at 16:54 | comment | added | whuber♦ | @Moss That depends on what you mean. The relationship between the percentiles of empirical data and their Z-scores is not given by the Normal probability function: it's specific to each dataset. | |
| Jan 17, 2018 at 16:51 | history | edited | AdamO | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 24 characters in body; edited title
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| Jan 17, 2018 at 4:49 | comment | added | Moss Murderer | There's a one-to-one mapping between z-score and percentile, so there's no fundamental difference. | |
| Jan 16, 2018 at 23:59 | review | Close votes | |||
| Jan 17, 2018 at 16:52 | |||||
| Jan 16, 2018 at 20:56 | review | First posts | |||
| Jan 16, 2018 at 23:41 | |||||
| Jan 16, 2018 at 20:53 | history | asked | Sinduja Rangarajan | CC BY-SA 3.0 |