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Jan 25, 2018 at 1:35 vote accept Lerner Zhang
Jan 25, 2018 at 1:29 comment added shimao It is because the derivative of $1/f(\epsilon)$ is $-\frac{f'(\epsilon)}{f(\epsilon)^2}$ by the chain rule, where in this case, $f(\epsilon) = q(x) + \epsilon \eta(x)$
Jan 25, 2018 at 1:24 comment added Lerner Zhang Thanks for your derivation. But how does the first limitation becomes the second? It seems that the divisor is squared unknowingly...
Jan 24, 2018 at 14:55 history edited shimao CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 24, 2018 at 14:49 history edited shimao CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 24, 2018 at 14:44 history answered shimao CC BY-SA 3.0