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Aug 24, 2013 at 15:27 answer added JAW timeline score: 1
Dec 1, 2012 at 4:01 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackStats/status/274724982691622914
Sep 27, 2012 at 18:36 answer added Emmanuel Charpentier timeline score: 0
Aug 19, 2012 at 17:22 comment added Emmanuel Charpentier Because if I know the distribution of ${(X-\mu_X)} \over \sigma$, (normal(0, 1), of course), I want to be able to use the distribution of ${(X-m)} \over s$, which is the propre prior distribution to use when these $X$ are themselves parameters in a Bayesian model. See an example of this use in Gelman's regression textbook (2007) about IRT models, when he uses this trick to get a better convergence of the IRT coefficients ; I'd like to have an explicit derivation instead of blind faith in BUGS sampling. PS : you're right $m \over s$ has a $t(\mu_x, 1, N-1)$ distribution.
Aug 10, 2012 at 22:01 comment added Michael R. Chernick It is not m/s that has the student t distribution it is (m-μ$_x$)/s. Why are you interested in the joint distribution of the components of the Y vector?
Aug 1, 2012 at 20:18 history asked Emmanuel Charpentier CC BY-SA 3.0