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Sep 23, 2023 at 18:50 comment added piero @JieShi Moreover, $q_p(s,a)$ is not even defined.
Sep 23, 2023 at 6:47 comment added piero @JieShi I don't get why the $p$ you defined is an optimal policy.
Oct 25, 2019 at 18:43 comment added Jie Shi To endbegin: Unfortunately, we do not have an inverse version of this relationship. But we do have the following one: $V_{\pi}(s)=Q_{\pi}(s,a)-A(s,a)$ where $A(s,a)$ is called advantage function.
Sep 16, 2019 at 23:41 comment added endbegin Do you have a similar derivation as (1) showing how $q_{\pi}(s,a)$ can be expressed as $v_{\pi}(s)$?
Apr 19, 2019 at 4:35 comment added Jie Shi To your first concern, $p(\cdot)$ denotes probability distribution. Policy is, intrinsically speaking, distribution of action condition on state. In this sense, $p$ and $\pi$ can be used interchangeably. Hope you now understand how Eq. 1 comes. To your second concern, What you have written is equivalent to the result that we want to prove.
Jan 21, 2019 at 16:39 comment added hardhu I am not sure if Jie Shi answer is an answer at all: first of all, it is not clear at all what is $p$ in the derivation of Eq. 1. I am guessing that you are referring to this relation between value and state-value functions for policies: $$v_{\pi}(s) = \sum_{a \in \mathcal{A}(s)} \pi(a|s) q_{\pi}(s,a)$$ But then if you define your deterministic policy $p$ as you have done, what you get by applying the previous relation to it is simply $$v_{p}(s) = q_{p}(s,a_s)$$ where $a_s \in \text{argmax}_{a \in \mathcal{A}(s)} q_*(s,a)$
Oct 4, 2018 at 22:20 review Late answers
Oct 4, 2018 at 22:50
Oct 4, 2018 at 22:01 review First posts
Oct 4, 2018 at 23:06
Oct 4, 2018 at 22:01 history answered Jie Shi CC BY-SA 4.0