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Oct 13, 2018 at 21:25 vote accept cabeer
Oct 13, 2018 at 20:29 comment added whuber When $K \gt 1,$ it is never the case that $\sum \lambda_k^{-1} = 1/\operatorname{Tr}(X^\prime X).$
Oct 13, 2018 at 17:35 answer added user158565 timeline score: 1
Oct 13, 2018 at 8:39 comment added cabeer Thank you very much for the answer and explanation! If you post this as an answer I happily accept it. :-)
Oct 13, 2018 at 0:21 comment added user158565 In $\beta'(X'X)^{-1}(X'\epsilon)$, only $\epsilon$ is random, $X$ and $\beta$ are constant. So $E(\beta'(X'X)^{-1}(X'\epsilon)) = \beta'(X'X)^{-1}X'E(\epsilon) = \beta'(X'X)^{-1}X'0 = 0$
Oct 12, 2018 at 23:31 history edited cabeer CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 12, 2018 at 23:03 comment added cabeer @a_statistician Oh damn, that does seem to make a lot of sense... But how come we can pull $\epsilon$ out of $E(.)$? Isn't this only allowed for scalar values?
Oct 12, 2018 at 22:56 comment added user158565 $E(\beta'(X'X)^{-1}(X'\epsilon)) = 0$, because $E(\epsilon) = 0$
Oct 12, 2018 at 22:37 comment added cabeer What do you mean exactly by that? I mean it's not about finding the estimate, but about the expected value of squared estimator?
Oct 12, 2018 at 22:10 comment added Maxtron If $\hat{\beta}$ is an estimate of $\beta$, why are you trying to find the its estimate again? Once you estimate $\beta$, it become deterministic, so there won't be any covariance term.
Oct 12, 2018 at 21:30 review First posts
Oct 12, 2018 at 22:16
Oct 12, 2018 at 21:29 history asked cabeer CC BY-SA 4.0