Timeline for Normal distributed random variables with constraint?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
7 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Jan 31, 2019 at 11:18 | vote | accept | Kagaratsch | ||
Jan 31, 2019 at 11:17 | comment | added | Kagaratsch | I guess you mean that $I_n$ is the matrix $\delta_{i,j}$, while $1_{n\times n}$ is matrix of full dimension with all elements filled by the same number $1$. Honestly, without knowing what we want to represent $Y_i=X_i-\bar X_n=X_i-\frac{1}{n}\sum_i^nX_i$, I would not have guessed that from the notation... ^^ | |
Jan 31, 2019 at 11:07 | comment | added | Ben | Those are $n \times n$ matrices, so they operate as linear functions $\mathbb{R}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^n$. | |
Jan 31, 2019 at 11:06 | comment | added | Kagaratsch | I see, makes sense, it is only really zero for $n\to\infty$. | |
Jan 31, 2019 at 11:06 | comment | added | Ben | Zero mean of the distribution doesn't lead to zero sample mean. Instead you have $\bar{X}_n \sim \text{N}(0, \sigma^2/n)$. | |
Jan 31, 2019 at 11:03 | comment | added | Kagaratsch | Thank you, this looks very good! Especially knowing the variance and correlations is useful. I'm a bit confused with the notation though, could you perhaps clarify which vector spaces the $I_n$ and $1_{n\times n}$ act on? And shouldn't the sample mean $\bar X_n$ vanish due to zero mean of all initial distributions? | |
Jan 31, 2019 at 2:29 | history | answered | Ben | CC BY-SA 4.0 |