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Feb 18, 2019 at 23:14 history edited kjetil b halvorsen
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Feb 10, 2019 at 1:21 vote accept user10831611
Feb 10, 2019 at 1:21 vote accept user10831611
Feb 10, 2019 at 1:21
Feb 8, 2019 at 22:03 answer added Ben timeline score: 1
Feb 1, 2019 at 14:58 answer added Brent Hutto timeline score: 2
Feb 1, 2019 at 14:30 comment added user10831611 @BrentHutto I'm not sure if I understand the difference between the two. Is rescaling the same as the scale function in R? If so, then my understanding is that log transformation is necessary beforehand (i.e. #6 on stats.stackexchange.com/questions/156791/…)
Feb 1, 2019 at 14:04 comment added Brent Hutto I'm not clear on the motivation for a log transformation. I also wonder if you mean "standardize them" or simply "rescale them". Rescaling and standardizing are two different operations. But unless I'm failing to miss the point, I think the answer is yes. You can definitely standardize variables without ever log transforming them.
Feb 1, 2019 at 13:59 history migrated from stackoverflow.com (revisions)
Feb 1, 2019 at 13:12 comment added user10831611 @AdamWheeler thank you!! I just have a quick question—If I were to transform one dependent variable with negative values in this way, would I do the exact same transformation to the other dependent variables and independent variable?
Feb 1, 2019 at 12:26 comment added James Phillips I suggest visually inspecting scatterplots of each independent variable versus the dependent variable to see if there is any obvious transformation such as exp or log that would help in the regression. This is usually fast and easy to do.
Feb 1, 2019 at 12:08 history asked user10831611 CC BY-SA 4.0