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May 21, 2021 at 9:00 history tweeted twitter.com/StackStats/status/1395665688736550915
Feb 8, 2021 at 0:05 history edited kjetil b halvorsen
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Feb 10, 2019 at 20:52 comment added StubbornAtom We know that density of correlation coefficient $R$ when $\rho=0$ is $$f_R(r)\propto (1-r^2)^{(n-4)/2}\mathbf1_{|r|<1}$$ By a change of variables $Y=R^2$, it follows that $Y\sim \text{Beta}(\frac{1}{2},\frac{n}{2}-1)$.
Feb 7, 2019 at 16:53 history edited VFreguglia CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 7, 2019 at 16:20 history asked VFreguglia CC BY-SA 4.0