Timeline for Why does the OLS-intercept not just "de-mean" the residuals of the same model without intercept?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| May 16, 2022 at 0:39 | comment | added | Glen_b | Not just from the residuals alone, no. | |
| Mar 8, 2019 at 17:43 | vote | accept | skoestlmeier | ||
| Mar 8, 2019 at 17:43 | |||||
| Mar 8, 2019 at 9:57 | comment | added | skoestlmeier | Sometimes, a simple picture says more than thousands words (+1)! Also as commented on the other answer, is there a way to calculate the intercept of the regression, given the residuals of the regression without intercept? | |
| Mar 5, 2019 at 23:34 | history | edited | Glen_b | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Mar 5, 2019 at 23:27 | history | answered | Glen_b | CC BY-SA 4.0 |