The reason why the intercept is omitted is because you have to manually create the "weighted" intercept analogue. As you have said yourself, this is the vector given by the constant term multiplied by the root of the weights vector. To additionally adjust for the intercept would correspond to a different model.
In other words, a weighted linear regression maximizes the likelihood:
$$ \mathcal{L}_{\alpha, \beta, \sigma}(X, Y, w) = \prod_{i=1}^{n} \phi(Y_i - \alpha - \beta X_i)^{w_i}$$
Where $\phi$ is the normal density.
$$\begin{eqnarray} \phi(Y_i - \alpha - \beta X_i)^{w_i} &\propto& \exp \left(-\frac{1}{2} \left( \frac{Y_i - \alpha -\beta X_i}{\sigma}\right)^2\right) ^{w_i} \\ &=& \exp\left(-\frac{w_i}{2}\left(\frac{Y_i - \alpha -\beta X_i}{\sigma} \right)\right) \\ &=& \exp\left(-\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{\sqrt{w_i}Y_i - \alpha \sqrt{w_i} -\beta \sqrt{w_i}X_i}{\sigma} \right)\right) \\ \end{eqnarray} $$$$\begin{eqnarray} \phi(Y_i - \alpha - \beta X_i)^{w_i} &\propto& \exp \left(-\frac{1}{2} \left( \frac{Y_i - \alpha -\beta X_i}{\sigma}\right)^2\right) ^{w_i} \\ &=& \exp\left(-\frac{w_i}{2}\left(\frac{Y_i - \alpha -\beta X_i}{\sigma} \right)^2\right) \\ &=& \exp\left(-\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{\sqrt{w_i}Y_i - \alpha \sqrt{w_i} -\beta \sqrt{w_i}X_i}{\sigma} \right)^2\right) \\ \end{eqnarray} $$
Which is immediately recognizable as the mean model for an OLS regression omitting the intercept and treating the root of the weight vector as the leading covariate, followed by the X_i scaled by the root of the weight vector as the covariable corresponding to the $\beta$ parameter, and Y_i scaled by the root of the weights vector as the response.