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S Jan 26, 2022 at 12:37 history suggested IWillDominate CC BY-SA 4.0
Improved the density equation formatting to make it easier to interpret scale parameter phi. Also moved tau before the exponential to emphasise that it doesnt depend on the parameter of interest theta but just the scale.
Jan 26, 2022 at 8:38 review Suggested edits
S Jan 26, 2022 at 12:37
Oct 11, 2021 at 14:52 comment added InTheSearchForKnowledge Hi, could you please explain in detail why "the sum of the residuals is 0" when we use the canonical link function ? Thank you very much for your help!
S Mar 25, 2018 at 9:35 history suggested GZ1995 CC BY-SA 3.0
Correct a typo, canonical link should be $\eta \equiv\theta$ rather than $\mu \equiv \theta$
Mar 25, 2018 at 4:48 review Suggested edits
S Mar 25, 2018 at 9:35
May 29, 2015 at 10:16 comment added Ziyuan Can I have the references for the "desirable statistical properties"?
Jan 28, 2015 at 9:20 comment added Leo Alekseyev It seems that there's a typo in key sentence of the answer: shouldn't it read "if the function connects $\mu$ and $\theta$ s.t. $\eta \equiv \theta$"?
Mar 14, 2014 at 15:22 comment added Druss2k Thank you very much. Using the previous example, we've that $\gamma'(\theta) = \pi = \frac{exp(\theta)}{1+exp(\theta)}$. Hence $(\gamma')^{-1}(.) = \text{logit(.)}$. As you said (I just rephrase), we only have $\eta = \theta$ if $g(.)$ is the canonical link, which is the logit. Then we will have $\theta = logit(\pi) = \eta$. So the equality between $\theta$ and the predictor $\eta$ only exists, if we use the canonical link function.
Mar 14, 2014 at 10:10 comment added Momo I hope I understand your confusion correctly: In the exponential family you talk about, the canonical parameter is $\theta$ and the canonical link is when $\eta=\theta$ which is when $g(\mu)=\theta$. As also $\theta=(\gamma')^{-1}(\mu)$ (if you calculate the expected value of the first derivative with respect to $\theta$ of the likelihood function) the only case when $\theta \equiv \mu$ appears when $g(.)=(\gamma')^{-1}(.)$.
Mar 13, 2014 at 18:04 comment added Druss2k I still get smth wrong. For instance the binomial distribution. Here, the canonical link is the logit and for one r.v. $Y_i$, we've $\mu=\pi$. Hence $\gamma'(\pi) = \theta(\pi)=\text{log}(\frac{\pi}{1-\pi})$ and $\gamma(\theta) = n\cdot\text{log}(1+\text{exp}(\theta))$ . By the definition that the canonical link is the one which connects $\mu$ and $\theta$ such that $\mu\equiv\theta$, I dont see how this is true if I apply presumably $(\gamma')^{-1}(\theta) = \pi(\theta) = \frac{\text{exp}(\theta)}{1+\text{exp}(\theta)}$? Do I apply $(\gamma')^{-1}$ to the LHS of $\theta(\pi)$?
Feb 21, 2014 at 12:18 comment added Wei Does a canonical link function always exist in GLM? What are the necessary conditions for it to exist? Thanks.
Oct 21, 2012 at 20:07 vote accept steadyfish
Oct 21, 2012 at 15:26 history edited Momo CC BY-SA 3.0
added 214 characters in body
Oct 21, 2012 at 15:13 comment added gung - Reinstate Monica +1, this is a really nice answer, @Momo. I did find some of the equations harder to read when they were buried in the paragraphs, so I 'blocked' them out by using double dollar-signs (ie \$$). I hope that's OK (if not, you can rollback, w/ my apologies).
Oct 21, 2012 at 15:11 history edited gung - Reinstate Monica CC BY-SA 3.0
added double dollars ($$) for 'blocked' latex
Oct 21, 2012 at 15:09 history edited Momo CC BY-SA 3.0
added 501 characters in body
Oct 21, 2012 at 14:58 history answered Momo CC BY-SA 3.0