Timeline for How is the standard deviation of VAE's constructed?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
5 events
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May 28, 2019 at 10:09 | vote | accept | DuttaA | ||
May 28, 2019 at 10:08 | comment | added | Frans Rodenburg | Good question! I searched the paper and couldn't find and explanation by the authors, but I assume it is because $\exp(x) > 0 \,\forall x$, and $\exp(\log(x)) = x$, so it is a way to ensure the variance is always positive. It might also just be for numerical stability, or convenience elsewhere in their derivations. | |
May 28, 2019 at 9:59 | comment | added | DuttaA | Yeah..I read it somewhere and yes i actually was not familiar with keras.. But can you tell something why is it not variance but log(variance)? | |
May 28, 2019 at 9:59 | history | edited | Frans Rodenburg | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 4 characters in body
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May 28, 2019 at 9:53 | history | answered | Frans Rodenburg | CC BY-SA 4.0 |