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May 28, 2019 at 10:09 vote accept DuttaA
May 28, 2019 at 10:08 comment added Frans Rodenburg Good question! I searched the paper and couldn't find and explanation by the authors, but I assume it is because $\exp(x) > 0 \,\forall x$, and $\exp(\log(x)) = x$, so it is a way to ensure the variance is always positive. It might also just be for numerical stability, or convenience elsewhere in their derivations.
May 28, 2019 at 9:59 comment added DuttaA Yeah..I read it somewhere and yes i actually was not familiar with keras.. But can you tell something why is it not variance but log(variance)?
May 28, 2019 at 9:59 history edited Frans Rodenburg CC BY-SA 4.0
added 4 characters in body
May 28, 2019 at 9:53 history answered Frans Rodenburg CC BY-SA 4.0