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Dec 14, 2020 at 10:20 history edited kjetil b halvorsen
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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:44 history edited CommunityBot
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Nov 20, 2016 at 22:52 answer added Bonnevie timeline score: 3
Nov 8, 2012 at 14:43 vote accept Arnold Neumaier
Nov 8, 2012 at 14:41 answer added Arnold Neumaier timeline score: 5
Oct 30, 2012 at 10:36 comment added Arnold Neumaier @StasK: Probably yes, but I am looking for the argument demonstrating this.
Oct 29, 2012 at 19:43 comment added StasK I am not sure I can put a finger on either my earlier claim or this fact, but I suspect that it has to do either with Bochner's theorem... which is to say that you cannot invert such defined ch.f. to obtain a function that would behave like a distribution function.
Oct 28, 2012 at 15:20 history edited whuber CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 28, 2012 at 13:25 history asked Arnold Neumaier CC BY-SA 3.0