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Jan 22, 2020 at 5:26 history edited William CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 21, 2020 at 3:01 history tweeted twitter.com/StackStats/status/1219454964986208259
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Jan 21, 2020 at 0:23 answer added whuber timeline score: 6
Jan 20, 2020 at 20:03 history edited William
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S Jan 20, 2020 at 8:32 history notice added William Authoritative reference needed
Jan 20, 2020 at 5:18 history edited William CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 19, 2020 at 0:06 comment added William Let us continue this discussion in chat.
Jan 18, 2020 at 21:02 comment added William @whuber I've corrected it, I've added $\theta^n$ in the denominator. Any way, still wondering if any answer to my previous comment.
Jan 18, 2020 at 21:00 history edited William CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 18, 2020 at 20:48 comment added William @whuber are you saying that when $\alpha =1, k=1, R=1$ the series converges to $(y^2+2e^{-y}(y+1)-2)/y^2$? If yes, how did you get that?
Jan 18, 2020 at 20:38 comment added whuber It must have been. There are some simple checks. One of them is that because $\theta$ is a scale parameter for $g,$ it must be a scale parameter for $U_i,$ whence the CDF must be a function of $y/\theta$--but it is not. Another is to plug in simple values of parameters. E.g., $\alpha=1,$ $k=1,$ $R=1$ gives a sum that evaluates to $(y^2 + 2e^{-y}(y+1)-2)/y^2,$ which works, so you might be close.
Jan 18, 2020 at 20:29 comment added William If it's not a CDF then was my derivation wrong?
Jan 18, 2020 at 20:18 comment added whuber That's irrelevant, because a more basic problem is that $F_{U_i}$ obviously is not a CDF, since it is directly proportional to $\theta^{-k}.$ Thus, there is at most one $\theta$ that could possibly make this a valid CDF and for arbitrary $\theta$ and $k$ it cannot be a CDF.
Jan 18, 2020 at 20:04 comment added William @whuber if it converges how do you proof $\int_0^\infty f_{U_i}(y) dy=1$?
Jan 18, 2020 at 15:12 comment added whuber Please explain why you think this series diverges. As far as I can tell, for most values of $\alpha$ (including all positive values) it is an entire function: it converges everywhere in the complex plane.
Jan 18, 2020 at 6:39 history asked William CC BY-SA 4.0