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Feb 13, 2020 at 17:04 comment added 0xbadf00d @Aksakal We need the other direction since otherwise the claimed equality only holds on a subset. (I know that this result is not important for the paper, but it's important in my application.)
Feb 13, 2020 at 15:32 comment added Aksakal @0xbadf00d, why do you need it in other direction? as I wrote, this result is not important for the paper anyways
Feb 13, 2020 at 5:06 comment added 0xbadf00d @Aksakal Yes, but this yields only one implication. What about the other direction?
Feb 12, 2020 at 15:09 comment added Aksakal @0xbadf00d, $\rho(x)>0\implies p(y,x)>0\implies\bar r(y,x)>0$, see the statement on Assumption 1 on p.8 of the paper
Feb 11, 2020 at 7:41 comment added 0xbadf00d Thank you for your answer. Your last displayed equation is my equation $(2)$. My problem is that I don't understand why this equation holds, since we not have the equivalence $\overline\rho(y,x)>0\Leftrightarrow\rho(x)p(x,y)>0$.
Feb 10, 2020 at 19:20 history edited Aksakal CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 10, 2020 at 19:14 history answered Aksakal CC BY-SA 4.0