Timeline for Why are probability distributions denoted with a tilde?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Apr 5, 2017 at 15:18 | comment | added | kjetil b halvorsen♦ | One probably could have "something like" equivalence relations in the contect of categories, that is, on proper classes. | |
| Jan 1, 2013 at 4:07 | comment | added | whuber♦ | Equivalence relation on what set? There is no such thing as a "set of all random variables." | |
| S Dec 31, 2012 at 3:06 | review | Late answers | |||
| Dec 31, 2012 at 3:13 | |||||
| S Dec 31, 2012 at 3:06 | review | First posts | |||
| Dec 31, 2012 at 3:13 | |||||
| Dec 31, 2012 at 2:50 | history | answered | Ben O'Neill | CC BY-SA 3.0 |